URSING OFFICER EXAM MCQs SERIES - 6 (AIIMS, Kerala PSC,DME, DHS, RRB, ESIC, NIMHANS, DSSB, CHO, JIPMER, PGI, NHM)

     

NURSING OFFICER EXAM MCQs 

SERIES - 6

(AIIMS, Kerala PSC,DME, DHS, RRB, ESIC, NIMHANS, DSSB, CHO, JIPMER, PGI, NHM)

1. Cushing’s triad refers to a set of signs that are indicative of:....................................?

                a) Increased intra-abdominal pressure

                b) Increased intra-thoracic pressure

                c) Increased intra-ocular pressure

                d) Increased intracranial pressure

                The correct answer is D) Increased intracranial pressure.

Explanation: Cushing's triad, also known as Cushing's reflex, is a set of three signs that are indicative of increased intracranial pressure (ICP):

1. Increased blood pressure: Elevated systolic blood pressure is a compensatory response to maintain cerebral perfusion.

2. Irregular breathing: Also known as Cheyne-Stokes respiration, this is characterized by alternating periods of rapid and slow breathing.

3. Bradycardia: Slowing of the heart rate, which is a reflex response to increased ICP.

Cushing's triad is a late sign of increased ICP and indicates a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention.

The other options are not correct:

A) Increased intra-abdominal pressure: This can cause abdominal compartment syndrome, but it is not related to Cushing's triad.

B) Increased intra-thoracic pressure: This can cause respiratory distress, but it is not related to Cushing's triad.

C) Increased intra-ocular pressure: This can cause glaucoma, but it is not related to Cushing's triad.

2. Which one of the following is a type of generalized seizure?

                a) Absence seizure

                b) Pseudo seizure

                c) Partial seizure

                d) Complex partial

                The correct answer is A) Absence seizure.

Explanation: Absence seizures, also known as petit mal seizures, are a type of generalized seizure characterized by:

• Brief loss of consciousness (usually 5-30 seconds)
• Sudden stop in activity
• Staring or blank expression
• No convulsions or muscle contractions

Absence seizures are often seen in children and typically do not have an aura or postictal phase.

The other options are not correct:

B) Pseudo seizure: Also known as psychogenic non-epileptic seizures (PNES), these are events that resemble seizures but are not caused by abnormal electrical activity in the brain.

C) Partial seizure: Partial seizures, also known as focal seizures, occur in one part of the brain and may cause localized symptoms such as numbness, tingling, or muscle contractions.

D) Complex partial: Complex partial seizures are a type of partial seizure that affects a larger area of the brain, often causing impaired consciousness, confusion, and automatisms (repetitive behaviors).

Generalized seizures, like absence seizures, affect the entire brain and can cause a range of symptoms, including loss of consciousness, convulsions, and muscle contractions.

3. Which of the following is a non-drug therapy for children with epileptic seizure?

                a) Ketogenic diet

                b) High protein diet

                c) Low fat diet

                d) High fiber diet

                The correct answer is A) Ketogenic diet.

Explanation: The ketogenic diet is a non-drug therapy for children with epileptic seizures, particularly those with refractory epilepsy. The diet is high in fat, moderate in protein, and low in carbohydrates. This combination forces the body to burn fat for energy instead of carbohydrates, producing ketones in the process.

Research has shown that the ketogenic diet can:

• Reduce seizure frequency and severity
• Improve cognitive function
• Enhance quality of life

The other options are not correct:

B) High protein diet: While protein is an essential nutrient, a high protein diet is not a specific therapy for epileptic seizures.

C) Low fat diet: A low fat diet is not typically recommended for children with epileptic seizures, as it may not provide sufficient energy for growth and development.

D) High fiber diet: A high fiber diet is important for digestive health

4. Sound created by turbulent abnormal blood flow of the heart, heard during auscultation:

                a) Friction rub

                b) Gallop

                c) Murmurs

                d) Rasping

                The correct answer is C) Murmurs.

Explanation: Murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during auscultation (listening to the heart sounds with a stethoscope) due to turbulent blood flow within the heart or its valves. These sounds can be caused by various factors, such as:

• Valve problems (stenosis or regurgitation)
• Congenital heart defects
• Heart failure
• Endocarditis

Murmurs can be classified based on their timing (systolic or diastolic), location, and characteristics.

The other options are not correct:

A) Friction rub: A friction rub is a sound heard during auscultation due to the rubbing of the pericardial layers against each other, often indicating pericarditis.

B) Gallop: A gallop is an abnormal heart sound that sounds like a third heart sound, often indicating heart failure or ventricular dysfunction.

D) Rasping: Rasping is not a commonly used term to describe heart sounds.

5. Which one of the following is the sound that provides the systolic pressure reading and is the first Korotkoff sound (Phase 1) heard as the pressure in the blood pressure cuff is released?

                a) A sharp tapping sound

                b) A swishing/whooshing sound

                c) A thump

                d) A soft, blowing, muffled sound

                The correct answer is A) A sharp tapping sound.

Explanation: The first Korotkoff sound (Phase 1) is a sharp tapping sound heard as the pressure in the blood pressure cuff is released. This sound indicates the systolic pressure reading, which is the highest pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat.

As the cuff pressure is released, the sounds change, and the following phases are heard:

• Phase 1: Sharp tapping sound (systolic pressure)
• Phase 2: Swishing/whooshing sound
• Phase 3: Thumping sound
• Phase 4: Muffled sound
• Phase 5: Silence (diastolic pressure)

The other options are not correct:

B) Swishing/whooshing sound: This sound is heard during Phase 2.

C) Thump: This sound is heard during Phase 3.

D) Soft, blowing, muffled sound: This sound is heard during Phase 4.

6. Which of the following treatment strategies have been shown to improve the outcome in patients diagnosed to have Guillain-Barré syndrome?

                a) Heat therapy

                b) Immobilization

                c) Anticholinesterases

                d) Plasmapheresis

                The correct answer is D) Plasmapheresis.

Explanation: Plasmapheresis, also known as plasma exchange, is a treatment strategy that has been shown to improve outcomes in patients with Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS). GBS is an autoimmune disorder that occurs when the body's immune system mistakenly attacks the peripheral nerves, leading to muscle weakness, numbness, and paralysis.

Plasmapheresis involves removing the plasma portion of the blood, which contains the antibodies attacking the nerves, and replacing it with a substitute solution. This process helps to:

• Reduce the severity of symptoms
• Shorten the duration of illness
• Improve recovery rates

The other options are not correct:

A) Heat therapy: Heat therapy may help alleviate muscle spasms and discomfort, but it does not address the underlying autoimmune process.

B) Immobilization: Immobilization may be necessary to prevent injury or complications, but it does not treat the underlying condition.

C) Anticholinesterases: Anticholinesterases are used to treat myasthenia gravis, a different autoimmune disorder that affects the nerve-muscle junction.

7. Parkinson’s disease includes all these symptoms except:

                a) Bradykinesia and loss of postural reflexes

                b) Stiff limbs

                c) Thunderclap headache

                d) Tremors of hand, arms, legs, jaw, and face

                The correct answer is C) Thunderclap headache.

Explanation: Parkinson's disease (PD) is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by a range of motor and non-motor symptoms. The classic motor symptoms of PD include:

• Tremors: Tremors of the hand, arms, legs, jaw, and face are common in PD.
• Bradykinesia: Slowness of movement and loss of spontaneous movement are hallmarks of PD.
• Rigidity: Stiffness of the limbs and trunk is a common symptom of PD.
• Postural instability: Impaired balance and coordination, leading to an increased risk of falls.

Thunderclap headache, on the other hand, is a sudden and severe headache that reaches its maximum intensity within 1 minute. It is often associated with subarachnoid hemorrhage, reversible cerebral vasoconstriction syndrome, or other vascular disorders. Thunderclap headache is not a typical symptom of Parkinson's disease.

The other options are all common symptoms of Parkinson's disease:

    A) Bradykinesia and loss of postural reflexes are both characteristic motor symptoms of PD.

    B) Stiff limbs (rigidity) are a common symptom of PD.

    D) Tremors of the hand, arms, legs, jaw, and face are all possible in PD.

8. Which term would the nurse use to document pain at one site that is perceived in another site?

                a) Referred pain

                b) Phantom pain

                c) Intractable pain

                d) Aftermath of pain

                The correct answer is A) Referred pain.

Explanation: Referred pain is a type of pain that is perceived at a location other than the site of the painful stimulus. This occurs when pain impulses from one area of the body are transmitted to the brain and interpreted as coming from a different location.

Examples of referred pain include:

• Pain from the heart being felt in the arm or jaw (angina)
• Pain from the gallbladder being felt in the right shoulder or back
• Pain from the pancreas being felt in the back or radiating to the abdomen

The other options are not correct:

B) Phantom pain: Phantom pain is a type of pain that occurs after the loss of a limb or other body part, where the individual feels pain in the missing limb.

C) Intractable pain: Intractable pain is a type of pain that is difficult to control or manage, often requiring specialized treatment.

D) Aftermath of pain: This term is not a recognized medical term for describing pain.

9. The two main factors for determining blood pressure are peripheral resistance and which one of the following?

                a) Cardiac output

                b) Age

                c) Pulse pressure

                d) Pulse deficit

                The correct answer is A) Cardiac output.

Explanation: Blood pressure (BP) is determined by two main factors:

1. Cardiac output (CO) : The amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute. Increased cardiac output increases blood pressure.

2. Peripheral resistance (PR) : The opposition to blood flow in the blood vessels. Increased peripheral resistance also increases blood pressure.

The relationship between these two factors can be summarized by the equation:

Blood Pressure = Cardiac Output x Peripheral Resistance

The other options are not correct:

B) Age: While age can affect blood pressure, it is not a direct determinant of blood pressure.

C) Pulse pressure: Pulse pressure is the difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure. It is influenced by cardiac output and peripheral resistance but is not a primary determinant of blood pressure.

D) Pulse deficit: Pulse deficit refers to the difference between the apical pulse rate and the radial pulse rate. It is not a factor that determines blood pressure.

10.In infectious diseases such as hepatitis B and C, a reservoir for pathogens is:

            a) The blood

            b) The urinary tract

            c) The respiratory tract

            d) The reproductive tract

            The correct answer is A) The blood.

Explanation: Hepatitis B and C are both blood-borne pathogens, meaning they are primarily transmitted through contact with infected blood. The blood serves as a reservoir for these pathogens, allowing them to survive and be transmitted to others.

In the case of hepatitis B and C, the blood reservoir can be:

• Chronic carriers: Individuals who are infected with the virus and can transmit it to others through blood-to-blood contact.
• Contaminated blood products: Blood or blood products that are contaminated with the virus can transmit the infection to others.
• Infected needles and syringes: Sharing needles or syringes contaminated with infected blood can transmit the virus.

The other options are not correct:

B) The urinary tract: While some pathogens can be transmitted through urine, hepatitis B and C are primarily blood-borne pathogens.

C) The respiratory tract: Hepatitis B and C are not typically transmitted through respiratory secretions.

D) The reproductive tract: While hepatitis B can be transmitted through sexual contact, the primary reservoir for the virus is the blood.

Understanding the reservoirs for pathogens is crucial for developing effective strategies to prevent and control infectious diseases.

11.Involvement of which of the following structures will lead to right-sided hemiplegia and aphasia?

            a) Left Middle Cerebral Artery

            b) Vertebral Artery

            c) Brain stem

            d) Right Middle Cerebral Artery

            The correct answer is A) Left Middle Cerebral Artery.

Explanation: The middle cerebral artery (MCA) is a critical artery that supplies blood to the lateral surface of the brain, including the motor and language areas.

The left MCA supplies the areas responsible for:

• Motor function for the right side of the body (including the face, arm, and leg).
• Language processing (Broca's area and Wernicke's area).
• Damage to the left MCA, such as a stroke or occlusion, can result in:
• Right-sided hemiplegia (weakness or paralysis of the right side of the body).
• Aphasia (difficulty with language processing, including speaking, understanding, reading, and writing).

The other options are not correct:

B) Vertebral Artery: The vertebral arteries supply the posterior circulation of the brain, including the brainstem, cerebellum, and posterior inferior cerebellar arteries. Damage to the vertebral artery can result in different symptoms, such as ataxia, dysarthria, or weakness.

C) Brain stem: The brainstem connects the cerebrum to the spinal cord and regulates vital functions, such as breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure. Damage to the brainstem can result in a range of symptoms, including weakness, numbness, or paralysis, but it would not typically cause right-sided hemiplegia and aphasia.

D) Right Middle Cerebral Artery: Damage to the right MCA would result in left-sided hemiplegia and possibly other symptoms, such as spatial neglect or anosognosia, but not aphasia.

Understanding the vascular supply of the brain and the effects of damage to specific arteries is crucial for diagnosing and managing stroke and other cerebrovascular disorders.

12.For doing nasotracheal suctioning, the catheter should be inserted during which of the following patient activities?

            a) Swallowing

            b) Inhaling

            c) Exhaling

            d) Retching

            The correct answer is B) Inhaling.

Explanation: During nasotracheal suctioning, the catheter should be inserted during inhalation to:

1. Reduce the risk of pushing the catheter into the esophagus or stomach.

2. Take advantage of the natural opening of the glottis (vocal cords) during inhalation, allowing for smoother passage of the catheter.

3. Minimize discomfort and reduce the risk of triggering the gag reflex.

Inserting the catheter during inhalation also helps to:

• Align the catheter with the trachea
• Reduce the risk of trauma to the nasal passages or trachea

The other options are not correct:

A) Swallowing: Inserting the catheter during swallowing can increase the risk of pushing the catheter into the esophagus.

C) Exhaling: Inserting the catheter during exhalation can cause the glottis to close, making it more difficult to pass the catheter.

D) Retching: Retching can cause the patient to become uncomfortable and increase the risk of vomiting, making it an unfavorable time to insert the catheter.

Proper technique and timing are essential for safe and effective nasotracheal suctioning.

13. Which of the following is the organism that causes peptic ulcer disease?

            a) Staphylococcus

            b) Corynebacterium

            c) Helicobacter pylori

            d) Streptococcus

            The correct answer is C) Helicobacter pylori.

Explanation: Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) is a type of bacteria that is a major cause of peptic ulcer disease (PUD). H. pylori infection can lead to:

• Gastritis (inflammation of the stomach lining)
• Peptic ulcers (sores in the stomach or duodenum)
• Increased risk of stomach cancer

H. pylori bacteria can colonize the stomach lining and produce enzymes that break down the protective mucous layer, allowing stomach acid to damage the lining and cause ulcers.

The other options are not correct:

A) Staphylococcus: Staphylococcus bacteria are commonly associated with skin and soft tissue infections, not peptic ulcer disease.

B) Corynebacterium: Corynebacterium bacteria are commonly found on the skin and in the respiratory tract, but they are not typically associated with peptic ulcer disease.

D) Streptococcus: Streptococcus bacteria are commonly associated with infections such as strep throat and pneumonia, but they are not typically associated with peptic ulcer disease.

14. Which of the following is the drug of choice to treat anaphylaxis?

            a) Atropine

            b) Sodium bicarbonate

            c) Digoxin

            d) Epinephrine

            The correct answer is D) Epinephrine.

Explanation: Epinephrine, also known as adrenaline, is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis, a severe and life-threatening allergic reaction. Epinephrine works by:

1. Constricting blood vessels to increase blood pressure

2. Relaxing muscles in the airways to improve breathing

3. Reducing swelling and inflammation

The American Academy of Allergy, Asthma, and Immunology (AAAAI) and other medical organizations recommend epinephrine as the initial treatment for anaphylaxis.

The other options are not correct:

A) Atropine: Atropine is an anticholinergic medication that may be used to treat bradycardia (slow heart rate) or asystole (flatline) in the setting of anaphylaxis, but it is not the first-line treatment.

B) Sodium bicarbonate: Sodium bicarbonate may be used to treat metabolic acidosis, which can occur in severe anaphylaxis, but it is not the primary treatment.

C) Digoxin: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside used to treat heart failure and atrial fibrillation, but it has no role in the treatment of anaphylaxis.

15. Which of the following is the earliest manifestation of inadequate oxygenation?

            a) Vomiting

            b) Bradycardia

            c) Restlessness

            d)Hypotension

            The correct answer is C) Restlessness.

Explanation: Restlessness is often the earliest manifestation of inadequate oxygenation, as it can indicate hypoxia (insufficient oxygen) or hypoxemia (low blood oxygen levels). When the body detects low oxygen levels, it can trigger a stress response, leading to restlessness, agitation, or anxiety.

The other options are not correct:

A) Vomiting: Vomiting can be a symptom of various conditions, including gastrointestinal issues, infections, or even anxiety, but it is not typically the earliest manifestation of inadequate oxygenation.

B) Bradycardia: Bradycardia (slow heart rate) can be a symptom of various conditions, including hypothyroidism, heart block, or even athletic training, but it is not typically an early sign of inadequate oxygenation.

D) Hypotension: Hypotension (low blood pressure) can be a symptom of various conditions, including dehydration, bleeding, or even sepsis, but it is not typically the earliest manifestation of inadequate oxygenation.

16. The principle of fairness is known as:

            a) advocacy

            b) autonomy

            C) justice

            D) accountability

            The correct answer is C) Justice.

Explanation: The principle of fairness is closely tied to the concept of justice, which involves treating individuals equally and without bias. Justice is a fundamental principle in healthcare, law, and other fields, ensuring that individuals receive fair treatment and equal access to resources.

Justice, as a principle, involves: Distributive justice (fair distribution of resources), Procedural justice (fair processes and decision-making), Social justice (addressing systemic inequalities and promoting fairness)

The other options are not correct:

A) Advocacy: Advocacy refers to the act of supporting or promoting a particular cause or individual. While advocacy can involve promoting fairness and justice, it is not the principle of fairness itself.

B) Autonomy: Autonomy refers to the ability of individuals to make decisions for themselves and act independently. While autonomy is an important principle in healthcare and other fields, it is not directly related to fairness.

D) Accountability: Accountability refers to the responsibility of individuals or organizations to answer for their actions and decisions. While accountability can involve ensuring fairness and justice, it is not the principle of fairness itself.

17. The appendix is in..............................................?

            a) the left antecubital fossa

            b) the left iliac fossa

            c) the right antecubital fossa

            d) the right iliac fossa

            The correct answer is D) the right iliac fossa.

Explanation: The appendix, also known as the vermiform appendix, is a small, tube-like structure attached to the large intestine. It is typically located in the right iliac fossa, which is the lower right region of the abdomen.

The right iliac fossa is bounded by:

• The right iliac bone (pelvis)
• The abdominal muscles
• The cecum (the first part of the large intestine)

The appendix is usually about 5-10 cm (2-4 inches) long and is attached to the base of the cecum.

The other options are not correct:

A) Left antecubital fossa: The antecubital fossa is the area in front of the elbow, and it is not a location for the appendix.

B) Left iliac fossa: The left iliac fossa is located on the opposite side of the abdomen, and it is not the typical location for the appendix.

C) Right antecubital fossa: Again, the antecubital fossa is not a location for the appendix.

18. The oxygen cylinder colour code in India is

            a) Black body and white shoulder

            b) Black

            c) Green body and white shoulder

            d) Light blue

            The correct answer is A Black body and white shoulder

19. fMRI stands for

            a) Fast Magnetic Resonance Imaging

            b) Fundamental Magnetic Resonance Imaging

            c) Fractional Magnetic Resonance Imaging

            d) Functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging

            The correct answer is: d) Functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging

Explanation: Functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging (fMRI) is a non-invasive imaging technique that measures changes in blood flow and oxygenation in the brain, allowing researchers to map brain activity and function.

fMRI is commonly used in:

• Cognitive neuroscience research
• Brain mapping and localization
• Studying brain function and behavior
• Clinical applications, such as diagnosing neurological disorders

The other options are not correct:

20. Kussmaul breathing is a deep and labored breathing pattern often associated with

            a) Diabetic ketoacidosis

            b) Hepatitis

            c) Hepatomegaly

            d) Acute Renal Failure

            The correct answer is: a) Diabetic ketoacidosis

Explanation: Kussmaul breathing is a type of breathing pattern characterized by:

• Deep breathing
• Labored breathing
• Increased respiratory rate

This breathing pattern is often associated with:

• Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
• Severe metabolic acidosis
• Respiratory compensation for acidosis

In DKA, the body produces excess ketones, leading to metabolic acidosis. Kussmaul breathing is a compensatory mechanism to help reduce the acidity by:

• Increasing ventilation
• Blowing off carbon dioxide
• Reducing hydrogen ion concentration

The other options are not directly associated with Kussmaul breathing:

b) Hepatitis: Hepatitis is inflammation of the liver, and while it can lead to various complications, Kussmaul breathing is not typically associated with it.

c) Hepatomegaly: Hepatomegaly is enlargement of the liver, which can be caused by various conditions. However, it is not directly related to Kussmaul breathing.

d) Acute Renal Failure: Acute renal failure can lead to various complications, including metabolic acidosis. However, Kussmaul breathing is more specifically associated with DKA and severe metabolic acidosis.

21. RBSK full form?

            a) Rashtriya bal shramik karyakram

            b) Rashtriya bal suraksha karyakram

            c) Rashtriya bal swasthya karyakram

            d) Rashtriya bal shramik kalyan

            The correct option is C: RBSK stands for: Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram

Explanation: RBSK is a health screening program initiated by the Government of India to detect and manage health conditions in children from birth to 18 years of age. The program aims to improve the health and well-being of children across the country.

22. The natural pacemaker of the heart is

            a) AV node

            b) SA node

            c) Purkinje fiber

            d) Bundle of HiS

            The correct answer is: b) SA node

Explanation: The SA (Sinoatrial) node, also known as the sinus node, is the natural pacemaker of the heart. It is a small group of specialized cells located in the right atrium, near the junction with the superior vena cava.

The SA node generates electrical impulses at a rate of around 60-100 beats per minute, which then travel through the atria and ventricles, causing the heart to contract. The SA node is responsible for:

• Regulating heart rate
• Maintaining a consistent rhythm
• Responding to physiological changes, such as exercise or stress

The other options are not correct:

a) AV node: The AV (Atrioventricular) node is a relay station that receives electrical impulses from the atria and sends them to the ventricles. While it plays a crucial role in the cardiac conduction system, it is not the natural pacemaker.

c) Purkinje fiber: Purkinje fibers are specialized conducting fibers that transmit electrical impulses from the AV node to the ventricles. They help coordinate ventricular contraction but are not the natural pacemaker.

d) Bundle of His: The Bundle of His is a group of specialized fibers that transmit electrical impulses from the AV node to the ventricles. While it is part of the cardiac conduction system, it is not the natural pacemaker.

23. Short shuffling gait is characteristically seen in

            a) Alzheimer’s disease

            b) Parkinson’s disease

            c) Multiple sclerosis

            d) Myasthenia gravis

            The correct answer is: b) Parkinson's disease

Explanation: A short shuffling gait is a characteristic feature of Parkinson's disease, a neurodegenerative disorder that affects movement. People with Parkinson's disease often experience:

• Shortened stride length
• Slowed walking speed
• Shuffling or dragging of the feet
• Difficulty initiating or maintaining gait

This type of gait is due to the degeneration of dopamine-producing neurons in the brain, which leads to:

• Rigidity
• Bradykinesia (slow movement)
• Postural instability

The other options are not correct:

a) Alzheimer's disease: Alzheimer's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that primarily affects cognitive function, memory, and behavior. While some people with Alzheimer's may experience gait changes, a short shuffling gait is not a characteristic feature.

c) Multiple sclerosis: Multiple sclerosis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the central nervous system. While it can cause a range of symptoms, including mobility issues, a short shuffling gait is not a hallmark feature.

d) Myasthenia gravis: Myasthenia gravis is a chronic autoimmune disorder that affects the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle weakness and fatigue. While it can cause mobility issues, a short shuffling gait is not a characteristic feature.

24. Spinal cord is continuous with which part of the brain?

            a) Medulla oblongata

            b) Cerebrum

            c) Midbrain

            d) Pons

            The correct answer is: a) Medulla oblongata

Explanation:  The spinal cord is a continuation of the medulla oblongata, which is the lowest part of the brainstem. The medulla oblongata connects the spinal cord to the rest of the brain.The spinal cord and medulla oblongata are connected at the foramen magnum, which is the opening at the base of the skull.

The medulla oblongata is responsible for:

• Controlling autonomic functions, such as breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure
• Regulating reflexes, such as swallowing, coughing, and vomiting
• Serving as a relay station for sensory information from the spinal cord to the brain

The other options are not correct:

b) Cerebrum: The cerebrum is the largest part of the brain, responsible for processing sensory information, controlling movement, and managing higher-level cognitive functions.

c) Midbrain: The midbrain is a part of the brainstem that connects the forebrain to the hindbrain. It plays a role in auditory and visual processing, as well as movement control.

d) Pons: The pons is another part of the brainstem, located above the medulla oblongata. It is involved in controlling sleep and arousal, as well as sensory processing.

25. One ounce is equivalent to............................................?

            A. Two table spoon

            B. Two tea spoon

            C. One pint

            D. one quart

            The correct answer is: A. Two tablespoons

Explanation: One ounce (oz) is equivalent to:

- 2 tablespoons (tbsp)

- 6 teaspoons (tsp)

The other options:

• B. Two teaspoons would be approximately 1/3 ounce.
• C. One pint is equal to 16 ounces.
• D. One quart is equal to 32 ounces.